Does the Church begin at Pentecost? Part II
by S. Van Mierlo (±1929) Translated from Dutch by Aristarkos
A — All right, let us see whether all this after all must not be applied spiritually to the believers in general. You yourself say that the nations are blessed in connection with Israel. Well, then you must confess that this is not the case now. Israel is not God's people now, and yet we have the blessings. If you want to show these texts, then you must apply them to the church and not to Israel.
B — Let us calmly consider that matter. All I want for the time being is that you acknowledge that the Old Testament teaches nowhere that Israel itself no longer awaits a bright future in relation to the earth liberated from the curse. We will see later what we must think about the present conditions, which according to the prophets are indeed completely abnormal. Have you noticed the condition for the coming of the kingdom?
A — Yes, if one takes the Old Testament literally, Israel had to convert to God (Deut. 30:1 — 10, Isa. 55:3, Jer. 4:1, 18:11, 25:5, Eze. 14:6; 18:30 — 32; 33:11; Hos. 3:4, 5; Zec. 1:3; Mal. 3:7 etc.) Furthermore, e.g. Isa. 53 also speaks of the coming of the Messiah in humiliation, before the conversion of Israel. Then we have many indications concerning a great tribulation that would precede the kingdom (Isa. 13:10, 34:4, Joel 2:3 — 32). I also read about all kinds of miracles. The blind would see, the lame hopping up etc. (Isa. 35:3 — 6 etc.). The converted Israelites would receive a new heart and the gift of the holy spirit. (Isa. 32:15, Joel 2:12, 13, 28 — 31 etc.).
If we literally incorporate everything that concerns Israel's future, it is beautiful, but still on earth. Can the purpose of God's Word be that Israel should not expect anything more glorious, not look forward to heaven? All of this is so material if one does not understand it spiritually. Could the Israelites really think that God would bless them for ever on earth?
B — If you want to apply this to us, you can not literally accept it. If you consider it the final state of Israel, either. But if you leave to Israel, that which belongs to Israel and you take into account, that this is not an eternal state, in the sense of « for ever », then I see no obstacle to assuming everything as it stands. We must not, however, see things too narrowly. In the future you have two groups of Israelites: 1° Those who repent and partake of the first resurrection, before the kingdom; 2° Those who do not repent and continue to live. The first group therefore has a glorified body, and will not be exclusively on earth, but in the heavenly sphere. Those of the second group continue to live on the redeemed earth with their normal body. Other times follow the kingdom, with new conditions. This only in passing, as a result of earlier research.
Now that we can somewhat imagine what expectations Israel might have, we can further examine the New Testament.
A — Yes and first the four Gospels. Here we have the words of Jesus himself.
B — What do you mean?
A — Well, that I put more faith in these words than in those of the Prophets or of the Apostles, that is only natural of course? The others could present something flawed or proclaim their own dogmas, but in the Gospels it is the Son of man himself who speaks.
B — So you make a difference between the inspiration of the Old Testament, the Gospels and the Letters? Why do you think that Matthew e.g. has the words of the Lord Jesus correctly reproduced? Actually, you also do not have the « words of Jesus » Himself here.
A — Well, John 14:26 says that the Holy Spirit would make them remember « whatsoever I have said unto YOU ». Matthew could thus literally reproduce those words.
B — Well answered. But John 16:12 — 14 states that there are other things to say. The Holy Spirit would later lead them into all the truth. So you must not content yourself with the Gospels, you have only the beginning. But now another question: Do you think that the Lord Jesus spoke His own words and proclaimed His own doctrine?
A — Yes of course!
B — Then you have to go and read John. 14:24 again: « The word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me ». And then John 7:16: « My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me ».
A — I must confess that I misunderstood those things. But one hears so often speaking of « back to Jesus » and that we should not seek it with Paul!
B — If you make a difference between the importance that we must attach to the « words of Jesus » and to the other parts of the Scriptures, then you reject the full inspiration of these Scriptures. Remember, Paul's words are not his, but those of God. See e.g. 1 Thes. 2:13, and for Peter: 1 Pet. 1:25.
A — I thank you for these remarks, I now see how easily one can be brought to criticizing Scripture.
B — Now let us begin with Matthew. In Mat. 3:1 — 3 we read: « Repent ye; for the kingdom of heaven is at hand ». If you keep an eye on what we have learned from the Old Testament, do not these words affect you? Mat. 2:2 says that the Lord Jesus is « the born King of the Jews ». In Mat. 4:23, 24 we read of the Gospel of the kingdom and of many healing, the inheritance of the earth is found in Matt. 5:5, Is that a new message?
A — No, indeed e.g. Psa. 37 speaks of them four times. It also surprised me, that verse 29 of that Psalm says that they would dwell on that earth forever. After what you have said about the « aions », however, this is clear.
B — Furthermore, we see that Jerusalem is the city of the great King (Mat. 5:35). Does it not surprise you that the disciples only have to go to Israel? (Mat 10:5, 6). We also see that the Lord Jesus is recognized as the Son of David (Matthew 21:1 — 9). He now brings the core of the law fully to the fore (Matt 22:36 — 40) with citing Deut. 6:5; 10:12; 30:6; Lev. 19:18. He points out with more emphasis than the Prophets on what the inner man is concerned. Without inner renewal, all forms of God are an abomination. They must do the heaviest of the law (Matthew 23:23), but do not neglect the other things (the forms). No jot or tittle of the law would pass away (Matthew 5:17 — 19).
A — I must confess that this way of looking at things is defendable, but I do believe that you will get stuck somewhere. You can still e.g. not insist that the gospel according to Matthew speaks only of Israel? You take some texts that concern Israel, but most of them are also addressed to us. And then we also read about the conclusion of the New Covenant, where Israel is no longer involved at all. You allow yourself to be carried too far by your own thoughts and I think it is a bit daring to go against age-old beliefs.
B — But my dear friend, how can I let myself be carried away by my thoughts, if I have not started with those thoughts myself? I used to share your opinion earlier, but a fair inquiry drove me to sacrifice my thoughts. I mean, indeed, that all of Matthew is Israel. The only reference to one of the Gentiles, I find in Mat. 15:22 — 28 and you see how that woman may still be very satisfied, that she receives « crumbs » by her great faith, such as the « puppies ». You yourself see the position of the nations in that time. As far as the New Covenant is concerned, I appeal your candid judgment. I know that I am very bold, but you agree that it is better to believe God than the people, even though they were so pious and learned. The New Covenant replaces the Old Covenant. With whom was Old Covenant closed?
A — With Israel and one speaks of the « Old Covenant people ». But therefore the New Covenant can be closed with the church?
B — That should at least be expressly stated. But now we have just indications that say the opposite; that makes every assumption from us unnecessary. Let us e.g. read Isa. 55:3: « I will make an everlasting covenant with YOU ». Of those to whom this is said, Isa. 54:3 says: « and thy seed shall inherit the Gentiles ». Then we read in Jer. 31:31 — 34: « Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a New Covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah ... I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts ... for I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more ». Also Ezekiel 37:24 — 28 speaks of that covenant in connection with the kingdom, the land, the statutes, the sanctuary, and the nations. Tell me now what allows you to assume that the New Covenant is closed with the church? Is not Israel the « new-covenant people » as well as the « old-covenant people »?
We see that the nations participate in the blessings, but the New Covenant is not closed with them, but closed with Israel.
A — But man, you don't mean that in earnest? Everyone knows that it is New Covenant concerns us. The entire N.T. is full of it, yes the name itself, N.T. or New Covenant, indicates that all this is addressed to us. What else would be left for us? Think of the consequences of such a doctrine.
B — I must remind you that all this is not refutation, no proof that it is closed with the nations. You rely on everyone, you are afraid of the consequences. I ask you a clear indication in God's Word. What will remain for us outside the New Covenant, we will investigate later, and I can assure you that it will not be so bad at all, that you will not lose anything, but will come to know the incomprehensible gifts that are now in the darkness for you, because you always see on that New Covenant.
A — Now, we will wait for that, I am extremely skeptical. If, by the way, you think that I can not rely on the scriptures to show that the New Covenant is closed with the believers from the nations and not Israel, you are wrong. Let me speak only of Heb. 8 and 9.
B — In Hebrews I search in vain for the nations. Heb. 8:8, 10 confirms, on the contrary, that the New Covenant is established with Israel and Judah. The entire Letter is addressed to the « Hebrews ». They were not believers from the nations, were they?
A — No, of course not, but because of that the Letter is also for us.
B — Certainly, the whole Scripture is for us. But that is why she does not necessarily focus entirely to us, nor does she act entirely over us. We come back to this distinction. In Hebrews, in any case, you have no proof that the New Covenant has been closed with the nations.
A — Well, let us consider things differently. If we assume that Israel is rejected for good and the Church takes its place, then you see how everything ends up correctly. Then we can apply all those texts to us, even if they are addressed to Israel. This is what the fathers did.
B — Our further investigation will decide. For the time being, we are taking things as God says. I must admit, moreover, that those who spiritualise the O.T. and apply the blessings of Israel to the Church are, in a sense, more logical than those who claim that the O.T. is literally to be believed and that Israel has a future, but not literally assume that the New Covenant is closed with Israel.
Remember, too, that I do not claim that the nations have no part in the blessings in connection with the New Covenant. That says O.T. as well as the N.T. and was never a mystery. But let us now examine Matthew.
A — Then I can immediately tell you that Mat. 28:1 and the mention of the « first day of the week » shows that Israel has nothing to do with this and that the Sabbath was now replaced by Sunday. What does the Sunday have to do with Israel?
B — Your comment would have some value if God's Word really spoke of Sunday. Would you like to consult the Concordant and look up the word « Sunday »?
A — Well, that word is not used, but « first day of the week » is the expression.
B — You mean the expression of the translators. But what are the words that the Holy Spirit uttered?
A — Except in Mat. 28:1 one finds that expression in Mark, 16:2; Luk. 24:1; Joh. 20:1, 19; Acts 20:7, 1 Cor. 16:2. In Mark. 16:9 Greek is somewhat different, but I do not know enough Greek to criticize the translators.
B — Well good, my intention was to investigate which word is used for « week ». Let us do it without the least knowledge of Greek. The margin of the KJV can help us here.
A — It says: « Greek: the sabbaths », that is to say, that the Greek text is literally: « the sabbaths ». But it also says: « which word is sometimes taken for the whole week ».
B — That is a human opinion, which can not be defended by any image from Scripture. We seek God's intention. Let us further note that « day » is printed in italics. That word is therefore added by the translators. What does the Greek text literally say?
A — « The first of the sabbaths ».
B — Actually, « first » in Greek is « one », but we will not dwell on that now. May I ask you where the Sunday is?
A — Well, that would have been the use of speech to describe Sunday; that is how the translators interpreted it and that is how it meant by all Christians from the first century.
B — Please beware. We examine the words that the Holy Spirit inspired. The apostasy also started from the first century, and wrong terms could then easily be introduced by the nations. They celebrated the « day of the Lord » or day of the Sun. From Paul's last letter written immediately after the first half of the first century, all of them turned away from him (2 Timothy 1:15). He can not sufficiently point to the necessity of holding sound doctrine and going to the Scriptures all the time. And that was so necessary, because just then the great mass of Christians turned away from sound doctrine. We can not rely on the writings of the first centuries. See e.g. in Acts 20:29 — 31 how Paul for three years has not ceased to admonish them for the « grievous wolves » and those who would speak wrong things. Also the fact that some things are accepted by a large number of believers is not of paramount importance. Only God's word is safe and I stick to the inspired words « the first of the sabbaths ». For « week » there is also another Greek word, often used in the translation of 70. And the use of the plural form does not make any sense at all if the Sunday is meant.
A — Now let us suppose that you are right, what does « the first of the Sabbaths mean »? Is it not clear that people do not have to translate this literally.
B — If you start with a certain opinion, then you are right, but let us see if God's Word here does not explain itself. The disciples keep the Jewish feasts. So we find in Mat. 26:17 « Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread » that was the beginning of the feast of unleavened bread of Lev. 23:6. Do you want to read this chapter?
A — Amazing! In verses 15 and 16 I read: « And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the sabbath, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the wave offering; seven sabbaths shall be complete: Even unto the morrow after the seventh sabbath shall ye number fifty days; and ye shall offer a new meat offering unto the LORD ». Here is a series of seven sabbaths, of 50 days, and the 50th day was what we now call « Pentecost » (i.e., fiftieth).
B — Do you see the connection with Mat. 28:1 etc.?
A — Yes. It was then the first of the seven sabbaths that followed the annual Sabbath (the 15th of Nisan), since 50 days after the resurrection the Pentecost was celebrated. I must confess that the Greek text can and must be understood entirely literally here. I must also confess that you did not twist a single text to carry out your opinion and that God's Word simply and clearly explains things to us.
B — So that was an annual holiday of Israel and not a new weekly holiday for the church. Therefore I repeat that in Matthew nothing is addressed to the Church.
A — But ... but ... I can not accept all that at once, that is beyond all thought! So many Christians could not be mistaken.
B — Remember who the god of this aion is. You have said that you want to be careful, well be careful. But then just as cautiously with regard to things that you were taught from childhood, as opposed to the other. In God's Word alone we have safe ground. God has spoken, for that the whole of Christianity has to give way. But we have not yet reviewed the other texts. E.g. Acts 20:7 and 1 Cor. 16:2. Suppose that also there shortly after Pentecost was spoken, that would not completely convince you that our conclusion from Matt. 28:1 is correct and there is no question of a weekly holiday?
A — Yes, it is interesting to examine these texts too; here we may find another solution.
B — Do you believe the gospel and were you baptized?
A — Yes of course, from where this strange question?
B — Because I've never seen you do any signs, seen you casting out devils, speaking with new tongues, picking up snakes, making sick people healthy. Do you want to read Mark, 16:17, 18?
A — ...
B — You do not say anything? Why do not you apply this text to you?
A — I want to be sincere. I have been told that these things no longer existed, because they only came to pass in the foundation of the Church, and also because we are unworthy of them. I must confess that that statement never satisfied me. The Lord Jesus does not speak specifically about the beginning of the Church. And then the Corinthians had these gifts and were certainly no more worthy than we were. But how do you explain this?
B — I have nothing to explain. There is no difficulty for me, because Mark does not speak to us. These words too are addressed to Israel and they will once again be literally fulfilled, when Israel is God's people again. I want to assume that in those times those gifts will also extend to the believers from the nations who have been blessed by Israel. But that is just an assumption. If you go through the whole scripture, you will see that such signs exist as long as Israel is God's people. You can find them in the whole book of Acts. Heb. 2:4 says « God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Spirit, according to his own will ». It was the « powers of the aion to come » (Heb.6:5) that is of the kingdom. As soon as Israel is no longer God's people (Acts 28:28), those signs stop because the kingdom is no longer near. In the Letters, written after Acts (Eph., Col., Php., 2 Tim.), one can not find any sign. Do you want e.g. compare Eph. 4:11, 12 with 1 Cor. 12:28?
A — Indeed, the first letter to the Corinthians speaks of powers, gifts of healing, languages, whereas they are no longer mentioned in Ephesians. This also reminds me that Paul does not heal Epaphroditus (Php. 2:27), nor Trophimus (2 Tim. 4:20) and he himself remains imprisoned for a long time, whereas in such a case he usually miraculously would have been liberated.
B — And in Col. 4:14 he calls Lukas the « beloved physician ». Had they systematically made sick people healthy, as during the time of the Acts, then no « physician » was needed. I do not mean that there are no exceptions. Just as in the past not all were redeemed and healed, so there might still be « faith cures » now. Are you beginning to notice that this time of Acts was a very special time, in no comparison with ours? This is one of the main keys to understanding the so-called « New Testament » and to « rightly dividing the word of truth ».
End of Part II
Aristarkos